الجمعة، 27 ديسمبر 2024

A Set of Botany CEE-3

 A Set of Botany CEE-3

  1. Which of the following is a characteristic of monocot plants?
    a) Two cotyledons
    b) Parallel venation in leaves
    c) Vascular bundles in a circle
    d) Presence of a tap root

  2. The primary function of the roots in plants is to:
    a) Store food
    b) Absorb water and minerals
    c) Perform photosynthesis
    d) Reproduce asexually

  3. The process by which plants lose water vapor through stomata is called:
    a) Respiration
    b) Transpiration
    c) Photosynthesis
    d) Germination

  4. The male reproductive organ in a flower is called the:
    a) Pistil
    b) Stigma
    c) Stamen
    d) Style

  5. The structure in plants that produces the majority of their food is:
    a) Roots
    b) Flowers
    c) Leaves
    d) Stem

  6. Photosynthesis in plants primarily takes place in:
    a) Roots
    b) Leaves
    c) Stems
    d) Flowers

  7. Which pigment in plants is responsible for absorbing light energy for photosynthesis?
    a) Carotene
    b) Chlorophyll
    c) Xanthophyll
    d) Melanin

  8. Which of the following is the site of gas exchange in plants?
    a) Stomata
    b) Phloem
    c) Xylem
    d) Chloroplasts

  9. The process by which pollen is transferred from the male to the female reproductive organ in flowers is called:
    a) Fertilization
    b) Pollination
    c) Germination
    d) Transpiration

  10. Which of the following is an example of a non-vascular plant?
    a) Moss
    b) Fern
    c) Pine tree
    d) Sunflower

  11. The part of the plant that anchors it to the soil and absorbs water and minerals is the:
    a) Leaf
    b) Stem
    c) Root
    d) Flower

  12. In which part of the plant does mitosis primarily occur?
    a) In the meristematic tissue
    b) In the mature leaf
    c) In the xylem
    d) In the phloem

  13. Which of the following is a characteristic of dicot plants?
    a) Parallel venation
    b) One cotyledon
    c) Vascular bundles scattered
    d) Two cotyledons

  14. Which of the following is responsible for transporting sugars in plants?
    a) Phloem
    b) Xylem
    c) Vascular cambium
    d) Collenchyma

  15. The process by which plants produce oxygen and glucose is:
    a) Respiration
    b) Photosynthesis
    c) Germination
    d) Transpiration

  16. The structure in the plant cell that contains chlorophyll is called:
    a) Mitochondria
    b) Nucleus
    c) Chloroplast
    d) Ribosome

  17. Which of the following is NOT a function of the stem in plants?
    a) Transport of water and nutrients
    b) Photosynthesis
    c) Storage of food
    d) Absorption of water

  18. Which part of the flower is responsible for producing pollen?
    a) Stigma
    b) Anther
    c) Ovary
    d) Style

  19. The fruit develops from which part of the flower?
    a) Stigma
    b) Ovary
    c) Anther
    d) Style

  20. The movement of water and dissolved minerals through plants is facilitated by:
    a) Phloem
    b) Xylem
    c) Epidermis
    d) Parenchyma

  21. Which of the following is an example of a gymnosperm?
    a) Pine tree
    b) Rose
    c) Mango tree
    d) Coconut

  22. In the process of transpiration, water vapor exits the plant through the:
    a) Root hairs
    b) Stomata
    c) Phloem
    d) Vascular cambium

  23. The life cycle of a plant that alternates between haploid and diploid stages is called:
    a) Pollination
    b) Germination
    c) Fertilization
    d) Alternation of generations

  24. The main function of the xylem in plants is:
    a) Transport of sugars
    b) Transport of water and minerals
    c) Photosynthesis
    d) Support and storage

  25. Which of the following is responsible for the formation of seeds?
    a) Pollination
    b) Fertilization
    c) Germination
    d) Transpiration

  26. The structure that provides support and rigidity to plant cells is called the:
    a) Chloroplast
    b) Cell wall
    c) Nucleus
    d) Cytoplasm

  27. Which of the following plants is an example of a dicot?
    a) Grass
    b) Wheat
    c) Sunflower
    d) Corn

  28. Which of the following processes occurs in the mitochondria of plant cells?
    a) Photosynthesis
    b) Glycolysis
    c) Cellular respiration
    d) Transpiration

  29. The process of converting nitrogen from the atmosphere into a usable form for plants is called:
    a) Nitrogen fixation
    b) Photosynthesis
    c) Respiration
    d) Transpiration

  30. The tissue responsible for the upward movement of water in plants is:
    a) Phloem
    b) Xylem
    c) Epidermis
    d) Collenchyma

  31. Which of the following is the dominant phase in the life cycle of ferns?
    a) Haploid gametophyte
    b) Diploid sporophyte
    c) Seed phase
    d) Fruit development phase

  32. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of angiosperms?
    a) They have naked seeds
    b) They do not have flowers
    c) They produce seeds within fruits
    d) They lack vascular tissue

  33. The development of a seed from a fertilized egg in the ovule is called:
    a) Germination
    b) Pollination
    c) Fertilization
    d) Seed formation

  34. The process by which plants grow towards light is called:
    a) Thigmotropism
    b) Phototropism
    c) Hydrotropism
    d) Gravitropism

  35. The primary source of energy for photosynthesis is:
    a) Oxygen
    b) Carbon dioxide
    c) Sunlight
    d) Water

  36. Which of the following plants undergoes double fertilization?
    a) Moss
    b) Gymnosperms
    c) Ferns
    d) Angiosperms

  37. Which structure in the plant cell contains the genetic material?
    a) Mitochondria
    b) Chloroplast
    c) Nucleus
    d) Endoplasmic reticulum

  38. The green color in plants is mainly due to the pigment:
    a) Xanthophyll
    b) Carotene
    c) Chlorophyll
    d) Anthocyanin

  39. The vascular tissue responsible for transporting food in plants is:
    a) Phloem
    b) Xylem
    c) Collenchyma
    d) Parenchyma

  40. Which of the following is the reproductive structure of a bryophyte?
    a) Spores
    b) Seeds
    c) Flowers
    d) Cones

Answer Key:
1-b, 2-b, 3-b, 4-c, 5-c, 6-b, 7-b, 8-a, 9-b, 10-a, 11-c, 12-a, 13-d, 14-a, 15-b, 16-c, 17-d, 18-b, 19-b, 20-b, 21-a, 22-b, 23-d, 24-b, 25-b, 26-b, 27-c, 28-c, 29-a, 30-b, 31-b, 32-c, 33-d, 34-b, 35-c, 36-d, 37-c, 38-c, 39-a, 40-a

A Set of Botany CEE-2

A Set of Botany CEE-2


 


  1. Which of the following is the smallest flowering plant?
    a. Wolffia
    b. Lemna
    c. Utricularia
    d. Azolla

  2. What is the function of lenticels in plants?
    a. Photosynthesis
    b. Gaseous exchange
    c. Transpiration
    d. Conduction of water

  3. Which hormone is responsible for seed dormancy?
    a. Abscisic acid
    b. Gibberellin
    c. Cytokinin
    d. Auxin

  4. The cork cambium is also known as:
    a. Phellogen
    b. Periderm
    c. Phelloderm
    d. Phloem

  5. In the Calvin cycle, the first stable product is:
    a. 3-phosphoglycerate
    b. Glucose
    c. Ribulose bisphosphate
    d. Oxaloacetate

  6. Which element is required for the synthesis of chlorophyll?
    a. Nitrogen
    b. Magnesium
    c. Iron
    d. Sulfur

  7. Vascular bundles in dicot stems are:
    a. Closed and scattered
    b. Open and arranged in a ring
    c. Closed and radial
    d. Open and scattered

  8. Which type of reproduction occurs in spirogyra?
    a. Vegetative
    b. Asexual
    c. Sexual
    d. All of the above

  9. The reserve food material in fungi is:
    a. Glycogen
    b. Starch
    c. Lipids
    d. Cellulose

  10. Casparian strips are found in:
    a. Epidermis
    b. Endodermis
    c. Pericycle
    d. Cortex

  11. Which of the following is a C4 plant?
    a. Rice
    b. Wheat
    c. Maize
    d. Potato

  12. The structure responsible for water transport in plants is:
    a. Phloem
    b. Xylem
    c. Cortex
    d. Epidermis

  13. Apical dominance in plants is caused by:
    a. Auxin
    b. Gibberellin
    c. Cytokinin
    d. Ethylene

  14. Which of the following is a nitrogen-fixing bacterium?
    a. Rhizobium
    b. Mycorrhiza
    c. Agrobacterium
    d. Azotobacter

  15. The primary function of root hairs is:
    a. Conduction
    b. Anchorage
    c. Absorption
    d. Storage

  16. Which algae is used as a source of agar?
    a. Gelidium
    b. Chlorella
    c. Spirulina
    d. Laminaria

  17. Double fertilization is unique to:
    a. Algae
    b. Gymnosperms
    c. Angiosperms
    d. Bryophytes

  18. The enzyme Rubisco is involved in:
    a. Photorespiration
    b. Nitrogen fixation
    c. Carbon fixation
    d. Water splitting

  19. Transpiration is least in:
    a. Sunny days
    b. Windy conditions
    c. High humidity
    d. Low humidity

  20. The term "totipotency" refers to:
    a. Cell differentiation
    b. Cell division
    c. The ability of a cell to develop into a complete plant
    d. None of the above

  21. Which pigment is responsible for red, orange, and yellow colors in plants?
    a. Chlorophyll
    b. Carotenoids
    c. Anthocyanins
    d. Xanthophylls

  22. Mycorrhizae are associations between:
    a. Algae and fungi
    b. Roots and fungi
    c. Roots and bacteria
    d. Fungi and insects

  23. The smallest unit of classification in taxonomy is:
    a. Genus
    b. Species
    c. Order
    d. Family

  24. Which plant hormone promotes fruit ripening?
    a. Auxin
    b. Cytokinin
    c. Ethylene
    d. Gibberellin

  25. The study of pollen grains is known as:
    a. Cytology
    b. Palynology
    c. Mycology
    d. Phycology

  26. Gymnosperms are characterized by the absence of:
    a. Seeds
    b. Flowers
    c. Vascular tissue
    d. Roots

  27. The process of guttation occurs through:
    a. Stomata
    b. Hydathodes
    c. Lenticels
    d. Epidermis

  28. Which of the following is a xerophytic adaptation?
    a. Thick cuticle
    b. Large leaves
    c. Stomata on both sides
    d. Thin cuticle

  29. The first stage of mitosis is:
    a. Anaphase
    b. Telophase
    c. Prophase
    d. Metaphase

  30. The main photosynthetic pigment is:
    a. Chlorophyll a
    b. Chlorophyll b
    c. Xanthophyll
    d. Carotenoids

  31. In Bryophytes, the dominant generation is:
    a. Gametophyte
    b. Sporophyte
    c. Zygote
    d. None of the above

  32. Plants in desert regions primarily use which photosynthetic pathway?
    a. C3
    b. C4
    c. CAM
    d. All of the above

  33. The edible part of the coconut is:
    a. Pericarp
    b. Endosperm
    c. Cotyledon
    d. Embryo

  34. Vernalization is the:
    a. Response to photoperiod
    b. Induction of flowering by low temperature
    c. Response to light intensity
    d. Response to water availability

  35. The study of seeds is called:
    a. Carpology
    b. Palynology
    c. Spermatology
    d. Cytology

  36. The largest angiosperm family is:
    a. Fabaceae
    b. Asteraceae
    c. Orchidaceae
    d. Poaceae

  37. In respiration, the terminal electron acceptor is:
    a. NADH
    b. FADH2
    c. Oxygen
    d. ATP

  38. Which of the following is a free-floating aquatic plant?
    a. Eichhornia
    b. Mango
    c. Neem
    d. Banyan

  39. In monocots, the vascular bundles are:
    a. Scattered
    b. Arranged in a ring
    c. Open
    d. Lateral

  40. Pollination by wind is called:
    a. Hydrophily
    b. Entomophily
    c. Anemophily
    d. Zoophily

Answer Key:
1-a, 2-b, 3-a, 4-a, 5-a, 6-b, 7-b, 8-d, 9-a, 10-b, 11-c, 12-b, 13-a, 14-a, 15-c, 16-a, 17-c, 18-c, 19-c, 20-c, 21-b, 22-b, 23-b, 24-c, 25-b, 26-b, 27-b, 28-a, 29-c, 30-a, 31-a, 32-c, 33-b, 34-b, 35-a, 36-c, 37-c, 38-a, 39-a, 40-c

A Set of Botany CEE-1

A Set of Botany CEE-1



a set of 40 Botany MCQs designed for the CEE (NEB) Entrance Exam in Nepal, covering easy, moderate, and hard levels,

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of monocot plants?

a) Two cotyledons
b) Parallel venation in leaves
c) Vascular bundles in a circle
d) Presence of a tap root

2. The primary function of the roots in plants is to:

a) Store food
b) Absorb water and minerals
c) Perform photosynthesis
d) Reproduce asexually

3. The process by which plants lose water vapor through stomata is called:

a) Respiration
b) Transpiration
c) Photosynthesis
d) Germination

4. The male reproductive organ in a flower is called the:

a) Pistil
b) Stigma
c) Stamen
d) Style

5. The structure in plants that produces the majority of their food is:

a) Roots
b) Flowers
c) Leaves
d) Stem

6. Photosynthesis in plants primarily takes place in:

a) Roots
b) Leaves
c) Stems
d) Flowers

7. Which pigment in plants is responsible for absorbing light energy for photosynthesis?

a) Carotene
b) Chlorophyll
c) Xanthophyll
d) Melanin

8. Which of the following is the site of gas exchange in plants?

a) Stomata
b) Phloem
c) Xylem
d) Chloroplasts

9. The process by which pollen is transferred from the male to the female reproductive organ in flowers is called:

a) Fertilization
b) Pollination
c) Germination
d) Transpiration

10. Which of the following is an example of a non-vascular plant?

a) Moss
b) Fern
c) Pine tree
d) Sunflower

11. The part of the plant that anchors it to the soil and absorbs water and minerals is the:

a) Leaf
b) Stem
c) Root
d) Flower

12. In which part of the plant does mitosis primarily occur?

a) In the meristematic tissue
b) In the mature leaf
c) In the xylem
d) In the phloem

13. Which of the following is a characteristic of dicot plants?

a) Parallel venation
b) One cotyledon
c) Vascular bundles scattered
d) Two cotyledons

14. Which of the following is responsible for transporting sugars in plants?

a) Phloem
b) Xylem
c) Vascular cambium
d) Collenchyma

15. The process by which plants produce oxygen and glucose is:

a) Respiration
b) Photosynthesis
c) Germination
d) Transpiration

16. The structure in the plant cell that contains chlorophyll is called:

a) Mitochondria
b) Nucleus
c) Chloroplast
d) Ribosome

17. Which of the following is NOT a function of the stem in plants?

a) Transport of water and nutrients
b) Photosynthesis
c) Storage of food
d) Absorption of water

18. Which part of the flower is responsible for producing pollen?

a) Stigma
b) Anther
c) Ovary
d) Style

19. The fruit develops from which part of the flower?

a) Stigma
b) Ovary
c) Anther
d) Style

20. The movement of water and dissolved minerals through plants is facilitated by:

a) Phloem
b) Xylem
c) Epidermis
d) Parenchyma

21. Which of the following is an example of a gymnosperm?

a) Pine tree
b) Rose
c) Mango tree
d) Coconut

22. In the process of transpiration, water vapor exits the plant through the:

a) Root hairs
b) Stomata
c) Phloem
d) Vascular cambium

23. The life cycle of a plant that alternates between haploid and diploid stages is called:

a) Pollination
b) Germination
c) Fertilization
d) Alternation of generations

24. The main function of the xylem in plants is:

a) Transport of sugars
b) Transport of water and minerals
c) Photosynthesis
d) Support and storage

25. Which of the following is responsible for the formation of seeds?

a) Pollination
b) Fertilization
c) Germination
d) Transpiration

26. The structure that provides support and rigidity to plant cells is called the:

a) Chloroplast
b) Cell wall
c) Nucleus
d) Cytoplasm

27. Which of the following plants is an example of a dicot?

a) Grass
b) Wheat
c) Sunflower
d) Corn

28. Which of the following processes occurs in the mitochondria of plant cells?

a) Photosynthesis
b) Glycolysis
c) Cellular respiration
d) Transpiration

29. The process of converting nitrogen from the atmosphere into a usable form for plants is called:

a) Nitrogen fixation
b) Photosynthesis
c) Respiration
d) Transpiration

30. The tissue responsible for the upward movement of water in plants is:

a) Phloem
b) Xylem
c) Epidermis
d) Collenchyma

31. Which of the following is the dominant phase in the life cycle of ferns?

a) Haploid gametophyte
b) Diploid sporophyte
c) Seed phase
d) Fruit development phase

32. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of angiosperms?

a) They have naked seeds
b) They do not have flowers
c) They produce seeds within fruits
d) They lack vascular tissue

33. The development of a seed from a fertilized egg in the ovule is called:

a) Germination
b) Pollination
c) Fertilization
d) Seed formation

34. The process by which plants grow towards light is called:

a) Thigmotropism
b) Phototropism
c) Hydrotropism
d) Gravitropism

35. The primary source of energy for photosynthesis is:

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Sunlight
d) Water

36. Which of the following plants undergoes double fertilization?

a) Moss
b) Gymnosperms
c) Ferns
d) Angiosperms

37. Which structure in the plant cell contains the genetic material?

a) Mitochondria
b) Chloroplast
c) Nucleus
d) Endoplasmic reticulum

38. The green color in plants is mainly due to the pigment:

a) Xanthophyll
b) Carotene
c) Chlorophyll
d) Anthocyanin

39. The vascular tissue responsible for transporting food in plants is:

a) Phloem
b) Xylem
c) Collenchyma
d) Parenchyma

40. Which of the following is the reproductive structure of a bryophyte?

a) Spores
b) Seeds
c) Flowers
d) Cones


Answer Key:

  1. b) Parallel venation in leaves
  2. b) Absorb water and minerals
  3. b) Transpiration
  4. c) Stamen
  5. c) Leaves
  6. b) Leaves
  7. b) Chlorophyll
  8. a) Stomata
  9. b) Pollination
  10. a) Moss
  11. c) Root
  12. a) In the meristematic tissue
  13. d) Two cotyledons
  14. a) Phloem
  15. b) Photosynthesis
  16. c) Chloroplast
  17. d) Absorption of water
  18. b) Anther
  19. b) Ovary
  20. b) Xylem
  21. a) Pine tree
  22. b) Stomata
  23. d) Alternation of generations
  24. b) Transport of water and minerals
  25. b) Fertilization
  26. b) Cell wall
  27. c) Sunflower
  28. c) Cellular respiration
  29. a) Nitrogen fixation
  30. b) Xylem
  31. b) Diploid sporophyte
    32. c) They produce seeds within fruits

33. c) Fertilization
34. b) Phototropism
35. c) Sunlight
36. d) Angiosperms
37. c) Nucleus
38. c) Chlorophyll
39. a) Phloem
40. a) Spores

A Set of Zoology CEE-5

A Set of Zoology CEE-5



another set of 40 Zoology MCQs designed for the CEE (NEB) Entrance Exam in Nepal. This set includes a mix of easy, moderate, and hard questions.

1. Which of the following is an example of a cartilaginous fish?

a) Salmon
b) Shark
c) Cod
d) Trout

2. The term "homeostasis" refers to:

a) The process of cellular respiration
b) The maintenance of a stable internal environment
c) The process of digestion in animals
d) The movement of water across membranes

3. Which structure in the human body is responsible for producing sound?

a) Pharynx
b) Larynx
c) Trachea
d) Nasal cavity

4. Which of the following is a function of the large intestine?

a) Absorption of nutrients
b) Absorption of water
c) Digestion of proteins
d) Secretion of bile

5. Which of the following animals is a herbivore?

a) Lion
b) Cow
c) Owl
d) Eagle

6. Which type of circulatory system do humans have?

a) Open circulatory system
b) Closed circulatory system
c) Double circulatory system
d) Simple circulatory system

7. The main site for the exchange of gases in the human respiratory system is the:

a) Trachea
b) Bronchi
c) Alveoli
d) Larynx

8. Which structure of the cell controls the movement of substances into and out of the cell?

a) Nucleus
b) Ribosome
c) Cell membrane
d) Cytoplasm

9. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of amphibians?

a) They lay eggs in water
b) They have smooth, moist skin
c) They are warm-blooded
d) They undergo metamorphosis

10. In humans, the blood vessel that carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the body is:

a) Pulmonary artery
b) Pulmonary vein
c) Aorta
d) Jugular vein

11. Which of the following is a characteristic of reptiles?

a) They have feathers
b) They are cold-blooded
c) They give live birth
d) They have a four-chambered heart

12. The structure that controls the rate of heartbeat in humans is:

a) Medulla
b) Hypothalamus
c) Sinoatrial node
d) Cerebellum

13. The term "biodiversity" refers to:

a) The study of interactions between organisms and their environment
b) The variety of living organisms in a specific area
c) The movement of animals between ecosystems
d) The conservation of rare species

14. Which of the following is the functional unit of the lung where gas exchange takes place?

a) Bronchi
b) Alveoli
c) Diaphragm
d) Trachea

15. The process by which plants lose water through their leaves is called:

a) Respiration
b) Transpiration
c) Photosynthesis
d) Osmosis

16. Which of the following is a primary function of the skeletal system?

a) Regulation of body temperature
b) Protection of internal organs
c) Transport of nutrients
d) Detoxification of harmful substances

17. Which of the following blood cells is responsible for carrying oxygen?

a) White blood cells
b) Red blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Neutrophils

18. The part of the brain responsible for regulating basic life functions, such as heartbeat and breathing, is the:

a) Cerebrum
b) Cerebellum
c) Medulla oblongata
d) Hypothalamus

19. The group of animals that includes insects, spiders, and crustaceans is called:

a) Mollusca
b) Arthropoda
c) Chordata
d) Annelida

20. Which of the following is the outermost layer of the skin?

a) Dermis
b) Epidermis
c) Subcutaneous layer
d) Hypodermis

21. Which of the following is responsible for blood clotting?

a) Red blood cells
b) White blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Plasma

22. Which part of the brain controls balance and coordination?

a) Cerebrum
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Cerebellum
d) Thalamus

23. The process by which cells convert glucose into energy in the presence of oxygen is known as:

a) Fermentation
b) Photosynthesis
c) Glycolysis
d) Cellular respiration

24. The structure in the human eye that focuses light onto the retina is the:

a) Pupil
b) Cornea
c) Lens
d) Retina

25. The hormone responsible for regulating the body’s metabolism is:

a) Insulin
b) Thyroxine
c) Adrenaline
d) Cortisol

26. Which of the following is a characteristic of birds?

a) They have gills for respiration
b) They lay eggs with soft shells
c) They have a four-chambered heart
d) They are cold-blooded

27. The part of the eye that contains photoreceptor cells is:

a) Cornea
b) Retina
c) Iris
d) Lens

28. Which of the following is responsible for carrying nerve impulses in the human body?

a) Epithelial cells
b) Muscle cells
c) Neurons
d) Bone cells

29. Which of the following types of animals are characterized by having an exoskeleton made of chitin?

a) Mollusks
b) Arthropods
c) Amphibians
d) Reptiles

30. The process by which a cell divides into two identical daughter cells is called:

a) Meiosis
b) Mitosis
c) Fertilization
d) Binary fission

31. Which of the following animals is an example of an endotherm?

a) Frog
b) Shark
c) Elephant
d) Lizard

32. Which of the following cells are involved in the immune response by producing antibodies?

a) Red blood cells
b) Lymphocytes
c) Platelets
d) Erythrocytes

33. The process by which an animal sheds its exoskeleton to grow is called:

a) Metamorphosis
b) Molting
c) Regeneration
d) Hibernation

34. The part of the brain responsible for regulating emotions and behavior is the:

a) Cerebellum
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Hypothalamus
d) Cerebrum

35. Which of the following is true about amphibians?

a) They live exclusively on land
b) They have a dry, scaly skin
c) They are warm-blooded
d) They have a three-chambered heart

36. Which part of the human brain is responsible for controlling voluntary muscle movements?

a) Cerebellum
b) Brainstem
c) Medulla
d) Cerebrum

37. Which of the following is a common characteristic of all vertebrates?

a) Exoskeleton
b) Backbone
c) Bilateral symmetry
d) External fertilization

38. Which of the following is an example of a placental mammal?

a) Kangaroo
b) Duck-billed platypus
c) Dolphin
d) Koala

39. The process of protein synthesis occurs at which cellular structure?

a) Nucleus
b) Ribosomes
c) Mitochondria
d) Golgi apparatus

40. The primary function of the lymphatic system is to:

a) Carry oxygen to tissues
b) Transport nutrients to cells
c) Protect the body from infections
d) Remove waste products from the body


Answer Key:

  1. b) Shark
  2. b) The maintenance of a stable internal environment
  3. b) Larynx
  4. b) Absorption of water
  5. b) Cow
  6. b) Closed circulatory system
  7. c) Alveoli
  8. c) Cell membrane
  9. c) They are warm-blooded
  10. c) Aorta
  11. b) They are cold-blooded
  12. c) Sinoatrial node
  13. b) The variety of living organisms in a specific area
  14. b) Alveoli
  15. b) Transpiration

16. b) Protection of internal organs
17. b) Red blood cells
18. c) Medulla oblongata
19. b) Arthropoda
20. b) Epidermis
21. c) Platelets
22. c) Cerebellum
23. d) Cellular respiration
24. c) Lens
25. b) Thyroxine
26. c) They have a four-chambered heart
27. b) Retina
28. c) Neurons
29. b) Arthropods
30. b) Mitosis
31. c) Elephant
32. b) Lymphocytes
33. b) Molting
34. c) Hypothalamus
35. d) They have a three-chambered heart
36. d) Cerebrum
37. b) Backbone
38. c) Dolphin
39. b) Ribosomes
40. c) Protect the body from infections


A Set of Zoology CEE-4

A Set of Zoology CEE-4



1. Which of the following is responsible for the production of antibodies in the human body?

a) Red blood cells
b) White blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Nerve cells

2. Which of the following is a major characteristic of amphibians?

a) They lay eggs on land
b) They have a four-chambered heart
c) They undergo metamorphosis
d) They are warm-blooded

3. The process by which plants make their own food is called:

a) Respiration
b) Photosynthesis
c) Germination
d) Transpiration

4. Which of the following organisms belongs to the class Mammalia?

a) Frog
b) Fish
c) Whale
d) Crocodile

5. Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

a) Detoxification of harmful substances
b) Storage of glycogen
c) Production of insulin
d) Breakdown of red blood cells

6. The circulatory system in humans is primarily classified as:

a) Open circulatory system
b) Closed circulatory system
c) Double circulatory system
d) Simple circulatory system

7. The structure that connects the kidneys to the bladder is called:

a) Ureter
b) Urethra
c) Nephron
d) Glomerulus

8. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of mammals?

a) Hair or fur
b) Live birth
c) External fertilization
d) Mammary glands

9. Which of the following is the function of the white blood cells?

a) Carry oxygen
b) Clot blood
c) Fight infections
d) Carry nutrients

10. The human skeleton consists of how many bones?

a) 206
b) 213
c) 216
d) 220

11. The "fight or flight" response is controlled by which part of the nervous system?

a) Parasympathetic nervous system
b) Sympathetic nervous system
c) Central nervous system
d) Autonomic nervous system

12. Which organ is responsible for the synthesis of bile?

a) Pancreas
b) Liver
c) Spleen
d) Stomach

13. Which of the following is the site of fertilization in humans?

a) Uterus
b) Ovaries
c) Fallopian tube
d) Vagina

14. The term "phylogeny" refers to:

a) The study of animals' behavior
b) The study of the evolutionary history of organisms
c) The study of cell structures
d) The study of genetics

15. Which of the following is a function of the large intestine in humans?

a) Digestion of proteins
b) Absorption of water and salts
c) Production of bile
d) Storage of bile

16. The term "metamorphosis" refers to:

a) The transition from a juvenile form to an adult form
b) A change in the genetic makeup of an organism
c) The transformation from one species to another
d) The process of cell division

17. Which of the following types of animals undergoes external fertilization?

a) Frog
b) Snake
c) Mammal
d) Reptile

18. In the human body, the main function of platelets is to:

a) Transport oxygen
b) Fight infection
c) Clot the blood
d) Carry nutrients

19. Which of the following is the correct order of the human digestive system?

a) Mouth → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine
b) Stomach → Mouth → Small intestine → Large intestine
c) Small intestine → Mouth → Large intestine → Stomach
d) Mouth → Small intestine → Large intestine → Stomach

20. The main function of the nephrons in the kidneys is to:

a) Store urine
b) Filter blood and remove waste
c) Transport urine to the bladder
d) Produce red blood cells

21. The group of animals characterized by a notochord, a dorsal nerve cord, and pharyngeal slits are called:

a) Arthropods
b) Chordates
c) Mollusks
d) Annelids

22. The brain's ability to adapt and reorganize itself is called:

a) Neuroplasticity
b) Neurogenesis
c) Synaptic pruning
d) Myelination

23. Which of the following is the outermost layer of the human skin?

a) Epidermis
b) Dermis
c) Hypodermis
d) Subcutaneous layer

24. Which of the following cells is involved in the immune response by producing antibodies?

a) Erythrocytes
b) Lymphocytes
c) Neutrophils
d) Platelets

25. The enzyme that breaks down proteins in the stomach is:

a) Amylase
b) Lipase
c) Pepsin
d) Trypsin

26. Which of the following is true about amphibians?

a) They are warm-blooded
b) They undergo metamorphosis
c) They have lungs but no skin respiration
d) They lay eggs on land only

27. The scientific study of animal behavior is called:

a) Zoology
b) Physiology
c) Ethology
d) Morphology

28. Which of the following is true about exoskeletons?

a) They are made of bone
b) They provide structural support for the organism
c) They are flexible and soft
d) They are only found in mammals

29. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of arthropods?

a) Exoskeleton made of chitin
b) Bilateral symmetry
c) Jointed appendages
d) Closed circulatory system

30. Which of the following processes is responsible for the movement of water and minerals through plants?

a) Photosynthesis
b) Transpiration
c) Respiration
d) Osmosis

31. The scientific name of the human species is:

a) Homo sapiens
b) Homo erectus
c) Homo habilis
d) Australopithecus afarensis

32. Which of the following is an example of an endothermic animal?

a) Frog
b) Whale
c) Fish
d) Lizard

33. The process by which an animal changes its form after birth or hatching is called:

a) Growth
b) Regeneration
c) Metamorphosis
d) Differentiation

34. The part of the brain responsible for memory and decision-making is:

a) Medulla oblongata
b) Cerebellum
c) Cerebrum
d) Thalamus

35. The primary function of the respiratory system in humans is to:

a) Transport nutrients to tissues
b) Exchange gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide
c) Filter toxins from the body
d) Pump blood through the body

36. Which of the following animals has a three-chambered heart?

a) Fish
b) Mammals
c) Amphibians
d) Birds

37. The structure that stores sperm in males is called the:

a) Urethra
b) Epididymis
c) Testes
d) Seminal vesicles

38. Which of the following is NOT an example of a primate?

a) Monkey
b) Gorilla
c) Rabbit
d) Chimpanzee

39. The process of cell division that results in two identical daughter cells is called:

a) Mitosis
b) Meiosis
c) Binary fission
d) Fertilization

40. Which of the following is a characteristic of reptiles?

a) They have feathers
b) They are cold-blooded
c) They lay eggs on land
d) They have a four-chambered heart


Answer Key:

  1. b) White blood cells
  2. c) They undergo metamorphosis
  3. b) Photosynthesis
  4. c) Whale
  5. c) Production of insulin
  6. b) Closed circulatory system
  7. a) Ureter
  8. c) External fertilization
  9. c) Fight infections
  10. a) 206
  11. b) Sympathetic nervous system
  12. b) Liver
  13. c) Fallopian tube
  1. b) The study of the evolutionary history of organisms
  2. b) Absorption of water and salts
  3. a) The transition from a juvenile form to an adult form
  4. a) Frog
  5. c) Clot the blood
  6. a) Mouth → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine
  7. b) Filter blood and remove waste
  8. b) Chordates
  9. a) Neuroplasticity
  10. a) Epidermis
  11. b) Lymphocytes
  12. c) Pepsin
  13. b) They undergo metamorphosis
  14. c) Ethology
  15. b) They provide structural support for the organism
  16. d) Closed circulatory system
  17. b) Transpiration
  18. a) Homo sapiens
  19. b) Whale
  20. c) Metamorphosis
  21. c) Cerebrum
  22. b) Exchange gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide
  23. c) Amphibians
  24. b) Epididymis
  25. c) Rabbit
  26. a) Mitosis
  27. b) They are cold-blooded

A Set of Physics CEE-3

A Set of Physics CEE-3




1. Which of the following is NOT a vector quantity?

a) Acceleration
b) Force
c) Work
d) Displacement

2. A body is moving with constant acceleration. If its initial velocity is 10 m/s and it travels 100 meters in 5 seconds, what is its acceleration?

a) 2 m/s²
b) 4 m/s²
c) 5 m/s²
d) 6 m/s²

3. The work done by a variable force F(x) along a straight line is given by:

a) W=F(x)dxW = \int F(x) dx
b) W=F(x)dtW = \int F(x) dt
c) W=F×xW = F \times x
d) W=F×vW = F \times v

4. A simple pendulum oscillates with a period TT. If the length of the pendulum is doubled, its period becomes:

a) 2T2T
b) 2T\sqrt{2}T
c) T/2T/\sqrt{2}
d) 4T4T

5. The potential energy of a spring is given by the equation U=12kx2U = \frac{1}{2} k x^2, where kk is the spring constant. If the spring is stretched by a factor of 2, the potential energy increases by:

a) 2 times
b) 4 times
c) 8 times
d) 16 times

6. The gravitational force between two bodies is proportional to:

a) The product of their masses and the square of the distance between them
b) The sum of their masses and the distance between them
c) The product of their masses and the inverse square of the distance between them
d) The product of their masses and the cube of the distance between them

7. The electric field inside a uniformly charged spherical shell is:

a) Zero
b) Uniform and directed radially inward
c) Uniform and directed radially outward
d) Non-uniform

8. A charge of +2 μC is placed in a uniform electric field of magnitude 500 N/C. The force experienced by the charge is:

a) 100 N
b) 1 N
c) 10 N
d) 5 N

9. If the frequency of a wave is doubled, its wavelength will:

a) Be halved
b) Be doubled
c) Stay the same
d) Be quadrupled

10. A particle moves in a circle of radius rr with constant speed vv. Its centripetal acceleration is given by:

a) a=v2ra = \frac{v^2}{r}
b) a=r2va = \frac{r^2}{v}
c) a=rv2a = \frac{r}{v^2}
d) a=vra = \frac{v}{r}

11. The refractive index of a material is 1.5. What is the angle of refraction if the angle of incidence is 30°?

a) 19.47°
b) 18.43°
c) 20.47°
d) 15.76°

12. The energy of an electron in the first orbit of a hydrogen atom is:

a) 13.6eV-13.6 \, \text{eV}
b) 1.6eV-1.6 \, \text{eV}
c) 13.6eV13.6 \, \text{eV}
d) 1.6eV1.6 \, \text{eV}

13. A current of 3 A flows through a conductor for 2 minutes. The total charge that flows through the conductor is:

a) 360 C
b) 600 C
c) 180 C
d) 30 C

14. The period of a wave is the reciprocal of:

a) Frequency
b) Wavelength
c) Speed
d) Amplitude

15. The wavelength of a wave is halved. What happens to its frequency?

a) It is halved
b) It is doubled
c) It remains the same
d) It is quadrupled

16. In a Young's double-slit experiment, the fringe width increases when:

a) The distance between the slits is increased
b) The wavelength of light is decreased
c) The distance between the screen and the slits is increased
d) The light source is changed to red

17. A 10 Ω resistor and a 5 Ω resistor are connected in series. The total resistance of the combination is:

a) 5 Ω
b) 10 Ω
c) 15 Ω
d) 2 Ω

18. The temperature of a gas is doubled while keeping its volume constant. The pressure of the gas will:

a) Remain unchanged
b) Double
c) Quadruple
d) Be halved

19. A charged particle moves in a magnetic field. The force acting on the particle depends on:

a) The velocity of the particle
b) The strength of the magnetic field
c) The angle between the velocity and magnetic field
d) All of the above

20. The work function of a metal is 2.5 eV. If light of wavelength 400 nm falls on the metal, what will be the energy of the emitted electrons?

a) 2 eV
b) 1 eV
c) 0.5 eV
d) 3.1 eV

21. In a diffraction pattern, the distance between two consecutive maxima is dd. If the wavelength of the light is doubled, the distance between the maxima will:

a) Remain the same
b) Be halved
c) Be doubled
d) Be quadrupled

22. A moving coil galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter by:

a) Connecting a low resistance in parallel
b) Connecting a high resistance in series
c) Connecting a low resistance in series
d) Connecting a high resistance in parallel

23. A conductor carries a current of 10 A. The number of electrons passing through a cross-section of the conductor in 1 second is:

a) 6.25×10196.25 \times 10^{19}
b) 6.25×10186.25 \times 10^{18}
c) 5.25×10195.25 \times 10^{19}
d) 5.25×10185.25 \times 10^{18}

24. The focal length of a concave mirror is 20 cm. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from the mirror. The image formed is:

a) Real and inverted
b) Virtual and erect
c) Real and erect
d) Virtual and inverted

25. The energy stored in a capacitor is:

a) E=12QVE = \frac{1}{2} QV
b) E=12CV2E = \frac{1}{2} C V^2
c) E=Q2CE = Q^2 C
d) E=C×VE = C \times V

26. The time period of a simple pendulum is TT. If the length is tripled, the new time period becomes:

a) 3T3T
b) 3T\sqrt{3}T
c) 9T9T
d) 6T6T

27. A transformer is used to step up the voltage from 100 V to 1000 V. If the current in the primary coil is 2 A, what is the current in the secondary coil?

a) 0.2 A
b) 0.02 A
c) 0.5 A
d) 1 A

28. The force between two charges is 9 N. If the distance between them is tripled, the force becomes:

a) 1 N
b) 3 N
c) 9 N
d) 0.33 N

29. The power dissipated by a resistor is directly proportional to:

a) Current
b) Voltage
c) Resistance
d) Both current and voltage

30. The velocity of light in a medium depends on the:

a) Frequency of light
b) Wavelength of light
c) Refractive index of the medium
d) Temperature of the medium

31. A 100 kg mass is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s. Its kinetic energy

is: a) 250 J
b) 500 J
c) 1250 J
d) 2500 J

32. The magnetic field at the center of a current-carrying circular loop is:

a) Zero
b) Directly proportional to the radius
c) Inversely proportional to the radius
d) Directly proportional to the current

33. The critical angle for a light ray passing from water (n = 1.33) to air (n = 1) is approximately:

a) 48°
b) 60°
c) 45°
d) 90°

34. A satellite orbits the Earth at a height hh above the surface. The speed of the satellite depends on:

a) hh only
b) The radius of the Earth
c) The mass of the satellite
d) Both hh and the mass of the Earth

35. The binding energy per nucleon in an atomic nucleus is:

a) Proportional to the mass of the nucleus
b) Inversely proportional to the mass of the nucleus
c) Always constant
d) Independent of the atomic number

36. If the velocity of light in a medium is vv, then the refractive index of the medium is given by:

a) cv\frac{c}{v}
b) vc\frac{v}{c}
c) v×cv \times c
d) v2c\frac{v}{2c}

37. The electric field inside a conductor in electrostatic equilibrium is:

a) Non-zero
b) Zero
c) Constant
d) Depends on the charge distribution

38. The intensity of sound is measured in:

a) Decibels
b) Hertz
c) Amperes
d) Joules

39. The magnetic force on a moving charged particle is maximum when:

a) The velocity and magnetic field are parallel
b) The velocity and magnetic field are perpendicular
c) The velocity is zero
d) The magnetic field is zero

40. A transformer works on the principle of:

a) Mutual induction
b) Self-induction
c) Electromagnetic induction
d) Faraday's law

41. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetic fields are:

a) Perpendicular to each other and to the direction of propagation
b) Parallel to each other and to the direction of propagation
c) Parallel to each other but perpendicular to the direction of propagation
d) Perpendicular to each other and parallel to the direction of propagation

42. The energy required to remove an electron from the outermost shell of an atom is called:

a) Ionization energy
b) Activation energy
c) Binding energy
d) Potential energy

43. The ratio of the velocity of light in a vacuum to its velocity in a medium is called:

a) Refractive index
b) Wavelength
c) Frequency
d) Wave number

44. If a conductor has a resistance of 5 Ω and a current of 2 A passes through it, the potential difference across the conductor is:

a) 2 V
b) 5 V
c) 10 V
d) 15 V

45. The period of a simple pendulum is independent of:

a) Mass of the bob
b) Length of the pendulum
c) Acceleration due to gravity
d) None of the above

46. The rate of heat transfer through a material is inversely proportional to its:

a) Temperature
b) Thermal conductivity
c) Thickness
d) Surface area

47. A 20 W bulb is connected to a 230 V supply. The current passing through the bulb is:

a) 0.087 A
b) 0.1 A
c) 0.15 A
d) 1 A

48. A black body absorbs all wavelengths of light. Its emissivity is:

a) Zero
b) One
c) Half
d) Depends on temperature

49. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor is directly proportional to:

a) The area of the plates
b) The distance between the plates
c) The voltage applied
d) The charge on the plates

50. The total energy of a photon is related to its frequency by the equation:

a) E=hνE = h\nu
b) E=hνE = \frac{h}{\nu}
c) E=h×ν2E = h \times \nu^2
d) E=hν2E = h\nu^2


Answer Key:

  1. c) Work
  2. a) 2 m/s²
  3. a) W=F(x)dxW = \int F(x) dx
  4. a) 2T2T
  5. b) 4 times
  6. c) The product of their masses and the inverse square of the distance between them
  7. a) Zero
  8. c) 10 N
  9. a) Be halved
  10. a) a=v2ra = \frac{v^2}{r}
  11. a) 19.47°
  12. a) 13.6eV-13.6 \, \text{eV}
  13. b) 600 C
  14. a) Frequency
  15. b) It is doubled
  16. c) The distance between the screen and the slits is increased
  17. c) 15 Ω
  18. b) Double
  19. d) All of the above
  20. d) 3.1 eV
  21. c) Be doubled
  22. c) Connecting a low resistance in series
  23. a) 6.25×10196.25 \times 10^{19}
  24. a) Real and inverted
  25. b) E=12CV2E = \frac{1}{2} C V^2
  26. b) 3T\sqrt{3}T
  27. a) 0.2 A
  28. d) 0.33 N
  29. d) Both current and voltage
  30. c) Refractive index of the medium
  31. c) 1250 J
  32. c) Inversely proportional to the radius
  33. a) 48°
  34. d) Both hh and the mass of the Earth
  35. b) Inversely proportional to the mass of the nucleus
  36. a) cv\frac{c}{v}
  37. b) Zero
  38. a) Decibels
  39. b) The velocity and magnetic field are perpendicular
  40. a) Mutual induction
  41. a) Perpendicular to each other and to the direction of propagation
  42. a) Ionization energy
  43. a) Refractive index
  44. c) 10 V
  45. a) Mass of the bob
  46. c) Thickness
  47. b) 0.1 A
  48. b) One
  49. a) The area of the plates
  50. a) E=hνE = h\nu


A Set of Zoology-3

A Set of Zoology-3



1. The structure that controls the entry of light into the human eye is:

a) Lens
b) Retina
c) Cornea
d) Pupil

2. The main function of the red blood cells is to:

a) Fight infection
b) Carry oxygen
c) Clot blood
d) Produce antibodies

3. The process by which plants lose water through their leaves is called:

a) Respiration
b) Transpiration
c) Evaporation
d) Condensation

4. The structure that produces insulin in humans is:

a) Liver
b) Stomach
c) Pancreas
d) Kidney

5. Which of the following is a characteristic of mammals?

a) They lay eggs
b) They have a backbone
c) They produce milk
d) They are cold-blooded

6. The human heart has how many chambers?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

7. Which of the following is the functional unit of the kidney?

a) Alveolus
b) Glomerulus
c) Nephron
d) Tubule

8. The process of protein synthesis takes place in which part of the cell?

a) Mitochondria
b) Nucleus
c) Ribosomes
d) Cytoplasm

9. Which of the following is the site for gas exchange in the human body?

a) Bronchi
b) Alveoli
c) Trachea
d) Pharynx

10. The part of the brain responsible for maintaining balance and coordination is:

a) Cerebellum
b) Cerebrum
c) Medulla
d) Pons

11. The molecule that carries genetic information is:

a) RNA
b) DNA
c) Protein
d) Lipid

12. Which of the following organs is responsible for filtering blood in the human body?

a) Heart
b) Liver
c) Kidney
d) Lung

13. The cells responsible for carrying oxygen in the human body are:

a) White blood cells
b) Red blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Nerve cells

14. The basic unit of heredity is:

a) Chromosome
b) Gene
c) DNA
d) Protein

15. Which of the following is the largest gland in the human body?

a) Liver
b) Pancreas
c) Pituitary
d) Thyroid

16. Which of the following is true about amphibians?

a) They are cold-blooded
b) They have a three-chambered heart
c) They are viviparous
d) They breathe only through gills

17. The process of cell division in which the chromosome number is halved is called:

a) Mitosis
b) Meiosis
c) Fertilization
d) Binary fission

18. The structure that connects muscles to bones is called:

a) Ligament
b) Tendon
c) Cartilage
d) Joint

19. The central nervous system consists of the:

a) Brain and spinal cord
b) Brain and heart
c) Spinal cord and nerves
d) Brain and muscles

20. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the digestive system in humans?

a) Mouth → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine
b) Mouth → Small intestine → Stomach → Large intestine
c) Stomach → Small intestine → Mouth → Large intestine
d) Mouth → Small intestine → Large intestine → Stomach

21. The cells responsible for immune response in the human body are:

a) Red blood cells
b) White blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Erythrocytes

22. The part of the nervous system that controls involuntary actions like heart rate is the:

a) Central nervous system
b) Sympathetic nervous system
c) Parasympathetic nervous system
d) Autonomic nervous system

23. Which of the following animals is viviparous?

a) Frog
b) Lizard
c) Dolphin
d) Bird

24. The part of the cell responsible for energy production is the:

a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Golgi apparatus
d) Endoplasmic reticulum

25. Which of the following is a function of the skeletal system?

a) Protects vital organs
b) Produces hormones
c) Transports oxygen
d) Regulates temperature

26. Which of the following is an example of an exoskeleton?

a) Human bones
b) Crab shell
c) Fish scales
d) Human teeth

27. Which of the following is a function of the lymphatic system?

a) Transportation of oxygen
b) Transport of nutrients
c) Removal of waste products
d) Fighting infections

28. The human body consists of how many bones in total?

a) 206
b) 270
c) 210
d) 206 at birth, but 270 in adults

29. Which of the following is responsible for the red color of blood?

a) White blood cells
b) Platelets
c) Hemoglobin
d) Plasma

30. The process by which a cell converts glucose into energy is called:

a) Photosynthesis
b) Cellular respiration
c) Glycolysis
d) Fermentation

31. The term "homeostasis" refers to:

a) Maintaining constant internal conditions
b) Growth and development
c) Energy production
d) External environment regulation

32. Which of the following is the main function of the lymphatic system?

a) Transport oxygen
b) Protect the body against infections
c) Regulate body temperature
d) Transport carbon dioxide

33. Which organ is responsible for regulating body temperature in humans?

a) Liver
b) Skin
c) Heart
d) Kidneys

34. Which type of blood vessel carries blood away from the heart?

a) Veins
b) Arteries
c) Capillaries
d) Lymphatic vessels

35. The enzyme that helps in breaking down starch in the mouth is:

a) Pepsin
b) Amylase
c) Lipase
d) Trypsin

36. The human body's largest lymphatic organ is the:

a) Lymph nodes
b) Thymus
c) Spleen
d) Liver

37. The movement of water across a semipermeable membrane is called:

a) Diffusion
b) Active transport
c) Osmosis
d) Filtration

38. The group of animals that includes insects, arachnids, and crustaceans is:

a) Arthropoda
b) Mollusca
c) Annelida
d) Chordata

39. The scientific study of the structure of organisms is known as:

a) Physiology
b) Morphology
c) Ecology
d) Cytology

40. The function of the immune system is to:

a) Regulate digestion
b) Transport oxygen
c) Fight infections
d) Produce hormones


Answer Key:

  1. d) Pupil
  2. b) Carry oxygen
  3. b) Transpiration
  4. c) Pancreas
  5. c) They produce milk
  6. c) 4
  7. c) Nephron
  8. c) Ribosomes
  9. b) Alveoli
  10. a) Cerebellum
  11. b) DNA
  12. c) Kidney
  13. b) Red blood cells
  14. b) Gene
  15. a) Liver
  16. a) They are cold-blooded
  17. b) Meiosis
  18. b) Tendon
  19. a) Brain and spinal cord
  20. a) Mouth → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine
  21. b) White blood cells
  22. d) Autonomic nervous system
  23. c) Dolphin
  24. b) Mitochondria
  25. a) Protects vital organs
  26. b) Crab shell
  27. d) Fighting infections
  28. a) 206
  29. c) Hemoglobin
  30. b) Cellular respiration
  31. a) Maintaining constant internal conditions
  32. b) Protect the body against infections
  33. b)Skin
    34. b) Arteries

35. b) Amylase
36. c) Spleen
37. c) Osmosis
38. a) Arthropoda
39. b) Morphology
40. c) Fight infections


A Set of Zoology CEE-2

A Set of Zoology CEE-2



1. The process by which an organism obtains and uses food is called:

a) Digestion
b) Respiration
c) Nutrition
d) Excretion

2. Which of the following is a characteristic of mammals?

a) They lay eggs
b) They have feathers
c) They produce milk
d) They are cold-blooded

3. Which of the following structures is involved in the formation of urine in humans?

a) Nephron
b) Liver
c) Heart
d) Stomach

4. The main function of the digestive system in humans is to:

a) Absorb nutrients
b) Transport oxygen
c) Remove waste
d) Pump blood

5. Which type of muscle is responsible for voluntary movements in humans?

a) Smooth muscle
b) Cardiac muscle
c) Skeletal muscle
d) Involuntary muscle

6. The group of animals known for having a segmented body, jointed appendages, and an exoskeleton is:

a) Mollusca
b) Annelida
c) Arthropoda
d) Chordata

7. The bone marrow produces:

a) Red blood cells
b) White blood cells
c) Platelets
d) All of the above

8. Which of the following is the largest organ in the human body?

a) Liver
b) Heart
c) Skin
d) Brain

9. The term "homeostasis" refers to:

a) The process of respiration
b) The ability to maintain a stable internal environment
c) The process of digestion
d) The development of cells

10. In humans, the heart pumps blood to the lungs through the:

a) Pulmonary artery
b) Aorta
c) Pulmonary vein
d) Inferior vena cava

11. Which of the following is true about enzymes?

a) They speed up chemical reactions
b) They are consumed in chemical reactions
c) They are a type of carbohydrate
d) They are always proteins

12. The human body contains how many chromosomes in total?

a) 46
b) 48
c) 52
d) 44

13. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the digestive process?

a) Mouth → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine
b) Stomach → Mouth → Large intestine → Small intestine
c) Large intestine → Mouth → Small intestine → Stomach
d) Small intestine → Mouth → Large intestine → Stomach

14. Which part of the nervous system is responsible for involuntary functions such as breathing and heart rate?

a) Central nervous system
b) Peripheral nervous system
c) Autonomic nervous system
d) Sympathetic nervous system

15. The process by which plants and animals produce offspring with similar traits is called:

a) Reproduction
b) Heredity
c) Metamorphosis
d) Regeneration

16. Which of the following is a characteristic of amphibians?

a) They are cold-blooded
b) They have scales
c) They are viviparous
d) They have a three-chambered heart

17. The part of the brain that controls balance and coordination is the:

a) Medulla
b) Cerebellum
c) Cerebrum
d) Pons

18. Which of the following is a blood cell involved in immune responses?

a) Red blood cell
b) White blood cell
c) Platelet
d) Erythrocyte

19. The structure that carries oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart is:

a) Pulmonary artery
b) Aorta
c) Pulmonary vein
d) Superior vena cava

20. The process of making proteins from amino acids in the body is called:

a) Photosynthesis
b) Transcription
c) Translation
d) Replication

21. In humans, the sense organ responsible for detecting sound is the:

a) Eye
b) Ear
c) Skin
d) Nose

22. The enzyme that helps break down proteins in the stomach is:

a) Amylase
b) Lipase
c) Pepsin
d) Trypsin

23. Which of the following is the primary function of the circulatory system in humans?

a) Transport of oxygen and nutrients
b) Production of hormones
c) Regulation of body temperature
d) Removal of toxins

24. The molecule responsible for carrying genetic information is:

a) RNA
b) DNA
c) Protein
d) Lipid

25. The process of fertilization in humans occurs in:

a) Ovary
b) Uterus
c) Fallopian tube
d) Vagina

26. Which of the following animals exhibits external fertilization?

a) Frog
b) Human
c) Dolphin
d) Cat

27. The function of the lymphatic system includes:

a) Regulating blood pressure
b) Fighting infections
c) Producing insulin
d) Producing red blood cells

28. The structure responsible for filtering blood in the kidney is called:

a) Glomerulus
b) Alveolus
c) Nephron
d) Ureter

29. The cells responsible for carrying oxygen in the blood are:

a) White blood cells
b) Red blood cells
c) Platelets
d) Plasma cells

30. The term "species" refers to:

a) A group of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring
b) A single organism
c) All organisms within a kingdom
d) All organisms within a phylum

31. Which of the following is the largest part of the brain?

a) Medulla oblongata
b) Cerebellum
c) Cerebrum
d) Thalamus

32. Which of the following organisms exhibits bilateral symmetry?

a) Jellyfish
b) Sponge
c) Earthworm
d) Coral

33. The process by which an organism develops into an adult is known as:

a) Differentiation
b) Growth
c) Development
d) Metamorphosis

34. Which of the following types of blood vessels carry deoxygenated blood?

a) Arteries
b) Veins
c) Capillaries
d) Lymph vessels

35. The structure of the eye that helps focus light onto the retina is the:

a) Iris
b) Cornea
c) Lens
d) Retina

36. The classification of organisms based on shared characteristics is called:

a) Taxonomy
b) Ecology
c) Evolution
d) Morphology

37. The term "metamorphosis" refers to:

a) Asexual reproduction
b) The transformation from an immature form to an adult form
c) Genetic mutation
d) The process of cell division

38. The cells that are responsible for the body's immune response are:

a) Epithelial cells
b) Nerve cells
c) White blood cells
d) Muscle cells

39. The "fight or flight" response is controlled by the:

a) Cerebrum
b) Medulla oblongata
c) Sympathetic nervous system
d) Parasympathetic nervous system

40. The scientific study of animal behavior is known as:

a) Ethology
b) Ecology
c) Zoology
d) Physiology


Answer Key:

  1. c) Nutrition
  2. c) They produce milk
  3. a) Nephron
  4. a) Absorb nutrients
  5. c) Skeletal muscle
  6. c) Arthropoda
  7. d) All of the above
  8. c) Skin
  9. b) The ability to maintain a stable internal environment
  10. a) Pulmonary artery
  11. a) They speed up chemical reactions
  12. a) 46
  13. a) Mouth → Stomach → Small intestine → Large intestine
  14. c) Autonomic nervous system
  15. a) Reproduction
  16. a) They are cold-blooded
  17. b) Cerebellum
  18. b) White blood cell
  19. c) Pulmonary vein
  20. c) Translation
  21. b) Ear
  22. c) Pepsin
  23. a) Transport of oxygen and nutrients
  24. b) DNA
  25. c) Fallopian tube
    26. a) Frog

27. b) Fighting infections
28. c) Nephron
29. b) Red blood cells
30. a) A group of organisms that can interbreed and produce fertile offspring
31. c) Cerebrum
32. c) Earthworm
33. c) Development
34. b) Veins
35. c) Lens
36. a) Taxonomy
37. b) The transformation from an immature form to an adult form
38. c) White blood cells
39. c) Sympathetic nervous system
40. a) Ethology


A Set of Zoology CEE-1

 A Set of Zoology CEE-1




1. The basic structural and functional unit of life is:

a) Atom
b) Cell
c) Tissue
d) Organ

2. The human skeleton consists of how many bones at birth?

a) 206
b) 270
c) 206
d) 300

3. The process by which plants prepare their food is called:

a) Respiration
b) Digestion
c) Photosynthesis
d) Transpiration

4. The main function of red blood cells is to:

a) Carry oxygen
b) Fight infections
c) Produce hormones
d) Produce antibodies

5. The human heart has how many chambers?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

6. The process by which white blood cells destroy harmful microorganisms is known as:

a) Phagocytosis
b) Osmosis
c) Photosynthesis
d) Respiration

7. The primary site of digestion in humans is the:

a) Stomach
b) Small intestine
c) Large intestine
d) Mouth

8. The heart is located in which cavity of the human body?

a) Cranial cavity
b) Thoracic cavity
c) Abdominal cavity
d) Pelvic cavity

9. The pigment responsible for the green color of plants is:

a) Carotene
b) Chlorophyll
c) Melanin
d) Hemoglobin

10. Which of the following is the main organ of the excretory system in humans?

a) Kidney
b) Heart
c) Lungs
d) Liver

11. The process of cell division that results in two identical daughter cells is:

a) Meiosis
b) Mitosis
c) Fertilization
d) Apoptosis

12. The part of the brain responsible for controlling voluntary movements is:

a) Medulla oblongata
b) Cerebellum
c) Cerebrum
d) Hypothalamus

13. Which of the following is not a component of the circulatory system?

a) Heart
b) Arteries
c) Kidneys
d) Veins

14. The process by which plants lose water through their leaves is called:

a) Transpiration
b) Evaporation
c) Condensation
d) Respiration

15. The process of photosynthesis takes place in which organelle?

a) Nucleus
b) Mitochondria
c) Ribosomes
d) Chloroplast

16. Which of the following is a characteristic of amphibians?

a) They have a three-chambered heart
b) They lay eggs on land
c) They have scales
d) They are warm-blooded

17. The process by which the body responds to infection by producing antibodies is known as:

a) Immunization
b) Respiration
c) Phagocytosis
d) Digestion

18. The largest organ in the human body is:

a) Heart
b) Liver
c) Skin
d) Brain

19. The process of fertilization in humans occurs in the:

a) Ovary
b) Fallopian tube
c) Uterus
d) Vagina

20. The largest gland in the human body is the:

a) Pancreas
b) Liver
c) Thyroid
d) Pituitary

21. Which of the following is the primary function of the white blood cells?

a) Transport oxygen
b) Fight infection
c) Control metabolism
d) Provide immunity

22. In humans, the process of gas exchange takes place in the:

a) Trachea
b) Bronchi
c) Alveoli
d) Pharynx

23. Which of the following animals is an example of a mammal?

a) Frog
b) Whale
c) Snake
d) Bird

24. The basic unit of heredity is:

a) Chromosome
b) Gene
c) DNA
d) Protein

25. The hereditary material in humans is found in:

a) Mitochondria
b) Nucleus
c) Cytoplasm
d) Ribosomes

26. The process by which an organism develops into a mature adult from a fertilized egg is known as:

a) Development
b) Metamorphosis
c) Growth
d) Differentiation

27. The bones that protect the brain are known as:

a) Ribs
b) Skull
c) Vertebrae
d) Pelvic bones

28. The process in which an organism maintains a stable internal environment is called:

a) Homeostasis
b) Respiration
c) Excretion
d) Digestion

29. The part of the human brain responsible for memory, thought, and learning is:

a) Cerebellum
b) Cerebrum
c) Medulla oblongata
d) Pons

30. Which of the following is a function of the liver?

a) Producing insulin
b) Storing bile
c) Storing glycogen
d) Producing adrenaline

31. The process of cellular respiration takes place in the:

a) Nucleus
b) Cytoplasm
c) Mitochondria
d) Ribosomes

32. The function of the ribosomes in a cell is:

a) Protein synthesis
b) Energy production
c) Cell division
d) Waste removal

33. Which type of blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from the heart to the body?

a) Arteries
b) Veins
c) Capillaries
d) Lymphatic vessels

34. The part of the neuron that transmits electrical signals to other cells is called:

a) Axon
b) Dendrite
c) Cell body
d) Synapse

35. The process of excretion in humans involves the removal of:

a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Nitrogenous wastes
d) Glucose

36. The structure in the human eye responsible for focusing light is:

a) Retina
b) Lens
c) Cornea
d) Iris

37. The term "homeostasis" refers to the body's ability to:

a) Reproduce
b) Maintain a stable internal environment
c) Move
d) Grow and develop

38. The type of reproduction in which offspring are genetically identical to the parent is:

a) Asexual reproduction
b) Sexual reproduction
c) Budding
d) Parthenogenesis

39. The inheritance of traits is determined by:

a) Genes
b) Alleles
c) Chromosomes
d) All of the above

40. The process by which an animal changes from one stage of its life cycle to another (e.g., larva to adult) is called:

a) Metamorphosis
b) Regeneration
c) Fertilization
d) Germination


Answer Key:

  1. b) Cell
  2. b) 270
  3. c) Photosynthesis
  4. a) Carry oxygen
  5. c) 4
  6. a) Phagocytosis
  7. b) Small intestine
  8. b) Thoracic cavity
  9. b) Chlorophyll
  10. a) Kidney
  11. b) Mitosis
  12. c) Cerebrum
  13. c) Kidneys
  14. a) Transpiration
  15. d) Chloroplast
  16. a) They have a three-chambered heart
  17. a) Immunization
  18. c) Skin
  19. b) Fallopian tube
  20. b) Liver
  21. b) Fight infection
  22. c) Alveoli
  23. b) Whale
  24. b) Gene
  25. b) Nucleus
  26. a) Development
  27. b) Skull
  28. a) Homeostasis
  29. b) Cerebrum
  30. c) Storing glycogen
  31. c) Mitochondria
  32. a) Protein synthesis
  33. a) Arteries
  34. a) Axon
  35. c) Nitrogenous wastes
  36. b) Lens
  37. b) Maintain a stable internal environment
  38. a) Asexual reproduction
  39. d) All of the above
  40. a) Metamorphosis


A Set Physics CEE-6

A Set Physics CEE-6



1. The wavelength of the light emitted by a hydrogen atom when the electron transitions from the n=2n = 2 to n=1n = 1 energy level is in the:

a) Ultraviolet region
b) Visible region
c) Infrared region
d) X-ray region

2. The time period of a simple pendulum is independent of:

a) Mass of the bob
b) Length of the pendulum
c) Amplitude of oscillation
d) Acceleration due to gravity

3. If the frequency of a wave is doubled, its wavelength will:

a) Be doubled
b) Remain the same
c) Be halved
d) Be quadrupled

4. The electric field intensity at a point due to a point charge is:

a) Proportional to 1r2\frac{1}{r^2}
b) Proportional to 1r\frac{1}{r}
c) Independent of distance
d) Proportional to r2r^2

5. The force between two charges is given by Coulomb’s law. If the distance between the charges is doubled, the force between them will:

a) Double
b) Remain the same
c) Be halved
d) Be quartered

6. A body is thrown vertically upwards. Its velocity at the highest point is:

a) Zero
b) Maximum
c) Minimum
d) Equal to the initial velocity

7. The acceleration due to gravity on the Moon is approximately:

a) 1.6 m/s²
b) 9.8 m/s²
c) 16 m/s²
d) 0.16 m/s²

8. The total mechanical energy of a system remains constant if:

a) Only conservative forces act on the system
b) Non-conservative forces act on the system
c) External forces are absent
d) The system is in equilibrium

9. A 20 Ω resistor is connected to a 10 V battery. The power dissipated by the resistor is:

a) 0.5 W
b) 2 W
c) 5 W
d) 10 W

10. The velocity of light in a medium with refractive index nn is:

a) cn\frac{c}{n}
b) cnc n
c) cc
d) nc\frac{n}{c}

11. The energy required to move a charge qq through a potential difference VV is:

a) VqVq
b) qV\frac{q}{V}
c) Vq\frac{V}{q}
d) qV2qV^2

12. A capacitor is charged by a DC source. After a long time, the current through the capacitor is:

a) Maximum
b) Zero
c) Decreasing
d) Constant

13. Which of the following is true for a concave mirror?

a) It always forms a real image
b) It always forms a virtual image
c) It can form both real and virtual images
d) It never forms an image

14. The rate of change of magnetic flux through a coil is called:

a) Induced current
b) Magnetic induction
c) Electric field
d) Electromagnetic induction

15. The escape velocity from the Earth’s surface is approximately:

a) 3.2 km/s
b) 7.2 km/s
c) 11.2 km/s
d) 15 km/s

16. The force acting on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field is proportional to:

a) The velocity of the particle
b) The magnetic field strength
c) The charge on the particle
d) All of the above

17. The kinetic energy of a moving object is:

a) Inversely proportional to the velocity
b) Proportional to the square of the velocity
c) Proportional to the velocity
d) Independent of velocity

18. The work done in moving a charge qq through a potential difference VV is:

a) W=V×qW = V \times q
b) W=VqW = \frac{V}{q}
c) W=q×V2W = q \times V^2
d) W=qVW = \frac{q}{V}

19. Which of the following is true for a convex lens?

a) It always forms a real image
b) It always forms a virtual image
c) It forms both real and virtual images
d) It never forms an image

20. The magnetic field lines inside a solenoid are:

a) Circular
b) Parallel and equidistant
c) Radial
d) Perpendicular to the axis of the solenoid

21. The intensity of sound is measured in:

a) Watts per meter
b) Decibels
c) Hertz
d) Joules

22. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of radius RR and mass MM about an axis passing through its center is:

a) 12MR2\frac{1}{2}MR^2
b) 25MR2\frac{2}{5}MR^2
c) 34MR2\frac{3}{4}MR^2
d) MR2MR^2

23. The unit of electric charge is:

a) Ampere
b) Coulomb
c) Tesla
d) Volt

24. The work done by a variable force is given by:

a) W=F×dW = F \times d
b) W=F(x)dxW = \int F(x) dx
c) W=12FdW = \frac{1}{2} F d
d) W=12F×d2W = \frac{1}{2} F \times d^2

25. A particle moves with uniform circular motion. The acceleration of the particle is:

a) In the direction of velocity
b) Radial and towards the center
c) Zero
d) Along the tangential direction

26. The relation between the frequency and time period of a wave is:

a) f=T2f = T^2
b) f=1Tf = \frac{1}{T}
c) f=Tf = T
d) f=2Tf = 2T

27. The resistance of a wire is inversely proportional to its:

a) Length
b) Cross-sectional area
c) Temperature
d) Voltage

28. In the photoelectric effect, the energy of emitted electrons depends on the:

a) Intensity of light
b) Frequency of light
c) Wavelength of light
d) Speed of light

29. The efficiency of an engine is defined as the ratio of:

a) Work done to heat supplied
b) Heat supplied to work done
c) Energy output to energy input
d) Energy input to energy output

30. The power of a lens is the reciprocal of:

a) Focal length
b) Image distance
c) Object distance
d) Refraction index

31. The force of attraction between two masses is directly proportional to:

a) Their relative velocity
b) The square of the distance between them
c) The product of their masses
d) The square of their masses

32. The speed of sound in air depends on:

a) Frequency
b) Amplitude
c) Temperature
d) Wavelength

33. The angular momentum of an object moving in a circle is:

a) Constant
b) Changing uniformly
c) Varying with time
d) Zero

34. In a transverse wave, the direction of vibration of the particles is:

a) Parallel to the direction of propagation
b) Perpendicular to the direction of propagation
c) Random
d) None of the above

35. The energy stored in a stretched spring is given by:

a) E=kxE = kx
b) E=12kx2E = \frac{1}{2} kx^2
c) E=kx3E = kx^3
d) E=kx4E = kx^4

36. The electric field due to a uniformly charged spherical shell at any point inside the shell is:

a) Zero
b) Constant
c) Directly proportional to the distance from the center
d) Inversely proportional to the distance from the center

37. The force on a charged particle moving through

a magnetic field depends on: a) The charge
b) The velocity of the particle
c) The strength of the magnetic field
d) All of the above

38. The focal length of a concave lens is:

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Infinity

39. The power dissipated in a resistor is directly proportional to:

a) The square of the current
b) The resistance
c) The square of the voltage
d) The current

40. The value of Planck's constant hh is:

a) 6.63×1034J\cdotps6.63 \times 10^{-34} \, \text{J·s}
b) 6.63×1034N\cdotpm6.63 \times 10^{-34} \, \text{N·m}
c) 3×108m/s3 \times 10^8 \, \text{m/s}
d) 1.6×1019C1.6 \times 10^{-19} \, \text{C}

41. The potential difference across a resistor is 12 V and the current is 3 A. The power dissipated in the resistor is:

a) 4 W
b) 36 W
c) 48 W
d) 24 W

42. The magnetic field due to a long straight current-carrying wire at a point is:

a) Directly proportional to the current
b) Inversely proportional to the distance from the wire
c) Directly proportional to the distance from the wire
d) Both a and b

43. The total mechanical energy of a system is constant if the forces acting on the system are:

a) Conservative
b) Non-conservative
c) Zero
d) Unbalanced

44. The refractive index of a medium is:

a) The ratio of speed of light in vacuum to that in the medium
b) The ratio of the refractive index of the medium to that of air
c) The ratio of wavelength in the medium to that in air
d) None of the above

45. The potential energy of an object is maximum at:

a) The highest point in its motion
b) The point of equilibrium
c) The lowest point in its motion
d) Any point

46. The unit of electrical potential is:

a) Joule
b) Watt
c) Volt
d) Ampere

47. The displacement of a body moving with uniform acceleration is given by:

a) s=ut+12at2s = ut + \frac{1}{2} at^2
b) s=ut12at2s = ut - \frac{1}{2} at^2
c) s=v+ats = v + at
d) s=vats = v - at

48. The temperature at which the Kelvin and Celsius scales are equal is:

a) -273°C
b) -40°C
c) 0°C
d) 100°C

49. The unit of magnetic field strength is:

a) Ampere
b) Tesla
c) Weber
d) Gauss

50. The work-energy theorem states that the work done on an object is equal to the:

a) Change in its momentum
b) Product of force and displacement
c) Change in its velocity
d) Change in its kinetic energy


Answer Key:

  1. a) Ultraviolet region
  2. a) Mass of the bob
  3. c) Be halved
  4. a) Proportional to 1r2\frac{1}{r^2}
  5. d) Be quartered
  6. a) Zero
  7. a) 1.6 m/s²
  8. a) Only conservative forces act on the system
  9. b) 2 W
  10. a) cn\frac{c}{n}
  11. a) VqVq
  12. b) Zero
  13. c) It can form both real and virtual images
  14. d) Electromagnetic induction
  15. c) 11.2 km/s
  16. d) All of the above
  17. b) Proportional to the square of the velocity
  18. a) W=V×qW = V \times q
  19. c) It forms both real and virtual images
  20. b) Parallel and equidistant
  21. b) Decibels
  22. b) 25MR2\frac{2}{5}MR^2
  23. b) Coulomb
  24. b) W=F(x)dxW = \int F(x) dx
  25. b) Radial and towards the center
  26. b) f=1Tf = \frac{1}{T}
  27. b) Cross-sectional area
  28. b) Frequency of light
  29. c) Energy output to energy input
  30. a) Focal length
  31. c) The product of their masses
  32. c) Temperature
  33. a) Constant
  34. b) Perpendicular to the direction of propagation
  35. b) E=12kx2E = \frac{1}{2} kx^2
  36. a) Zero
  37. d) All of the above
  38. b) Negative
  39. a) The square of the current
  40. a) 6.63×1034J\cdotps6.63 \times 10^{-34} \, \text{J·s}
  41. c) 48 W
  42. d) Both a and b
  43. a) Conservative
  44. a) The ratio of speed of light in vacuum to that in the medium
  45. a) The highest point in its motion
  46. c) Volt
  47. a) s=ut+12at2s = ut + \frac{1}{2} at^2
  48. b) -40°C
  49. b) Tesla
  50. d) Change in its kinetic energy